Solution: First, note that ( \sin\theta\cos\theta = \frac12\sin 2\theta ), and ( e^i\phi ) suggests ( m=1 ). But let’s check normalization and (L_z) action: ( \hatL_z = -i\hbar \frac\partial\partial\phi ). Applying to (\psi): ( -i\hbar \frac\partial\partial\phi \psi = -i\hbar (i) \psi = \hbar \psi ). Thus (\psi) is an eigenstate of (L_z) with eigenvalue ( \hbar ). So ( \langle L_z \rangle = \hbar ).
[ [\hatL_x, \hatL_y] = i\hbar \hatL_z, \quad [\hatL_y, \hatL_z] = i\hbar \hatL_x, \quad [\hatL_z, \hatL_x] = i\hbar \hatL_y. ] Quantum Mechanics Demystified 2nd Edition David McMahon
We write the eigenstates as (|+\rangle) (spin up) and (|-\rangle) (spin down): Thus (\psi) is an eigenstate of (L_z) with
[ \sigma_x |\psi\rangle = \beginpmatrix 0&1\1&0 \endpmatrix \frac1\sqrt2 \beginpmatrix 1\ i \endpmatrix = \frac1\sqrt2 \beginpmatrix i \ 1 \endpmatrix. ] [ \langle \psi | \sigma_x | \psi \rangle = \frac1\sqrt2 \beginpmatrix 1 & -i \endpmatrix \cdot \frac1\sqrt2 \beginpmatrix i \ 1 \endpmatrix = \frac12 (i - i) = 0. ] So (\langle S_x \rangle = 0). ] We write the eigenstates as (|+\rangle) (spin
In position space, the eigenfunctions are the spherical harmonics ( Y_l^m(\theta,\phi) ).
(Verify normalization: (\int |\psi|^2 d\Omega = 1) indeed for the given coefficient.) Spin is an intrinsic degree of freedom. The spin operators (\hatS_x, \hatS_y, \hatS_z) obey the same commutation relations as orbital angular momentum:
For a particle (e.g., electron, proton, neutron), the eigenvalues of (\hatS^2) are (\hbar^2 s(s+1)) with (s = 1/2), and eigenvalues of (\hatS_z) are (\pm \hbar/2).